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MVO: concentrated assets

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Hi guys. 

Do I understand correctly, that MVO leads to concentrated asset allocations, and this concentration is due to the fact that MVO is seeking the highest return assets, so it will concentrate the allocation to those assets? 

Because this is in contradiction to the fact that MVO is also based on diversification… which means, concentration should not be an issue (though I know it is, because that is one of the MVO criticisms). How would you reconcile this? Thanks!!


fixed income

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I am having problem understanding the logic behind EOC # 23: Rd 10.

Explanation given:- Inter-market carry trades do not, in general, break even if each yield curve goes to its forward rates. Intra-market trades will break even if the curve goes to the forward rates because, by construction of the forward rates, all points on the curve will earn the “first-period” rate (that is, the rate for the holding period being considered). Inter-market trades need not break even unless the “first-period” rate is the same in the two markets. If the currency exposure is not hedged, then breaking even also requires that there be no change in the currency exchange rate.

Can anyone help?

Reading 13 .Principles of Asset Allocation ( page 125 - The Smiths example)

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Hi,

Can someone explain to me how they are working out the figures on the Smiths example.

1. I got this answer right. 

2. This answer was later corrected to 6,275,000 but I still cant get to that answer.

3. I got 6,691,026 for this one

4. I got 2,682,718

Can someone let me know where I am getting wrong.

Thanks

Asset Allocation - subportfolio risk

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Lennon is the client, Everett (18) and Marshall (14) are the children. 

  • Everett is just beginning university and plans to pursue a medical degree. Lennon plans on paying for his entire education and living expenses as well as providing some assistance in funding his future practice. She believes that these goals will be covered with $1.5 million in present value terms.
  • She has begun the process of setting up a special needs trust to provide lifetime benefits for Marshall that will not interfere with the government benefits that he is eligible to receive. It will be funded with $2 million within the year.
  • She recently received an honorary doctorate from her alma mater and has started the process of endowing a chair in its communications department. She anticipates that the funding will be made available to the university in two years; it has a present value of $1.75 million

Which of the sub-portfolios dedicated to Lennon’s aspirational goals is in the best position to tolerate the greatest risk exposure? The one dedicated to:

A. Everett’s education

B. Marshall’s trust

C. University endowment

A is correct. Both of the funds planned for the trust and university endowment represent an imminent need (immediate for the trust and within two years for the endowment). The funding needed for education, however, extends over the longest time horizon, possibly as long as 8 to 10 years. Thus, its sub-portfolio would be in the best position to take on the greatest risk.

I would have went for B - because of the longest horizon. However, it requires immediate funding (this year). Therefore needs to be liquid.

However, for endowments, aren´t they supposed to have a very long horizon? Funding begins in two years, yes, but the horizon extends beyond the 8-10 years of university time horizon?

Thank you!!

optimal asset allocation - MTCR and Sharpe

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Excess Return over MTCR’s formula is equivalent to a Sharpe Ratio.
The calculation is: (R p -R f ) / MCTR
The Sharpe ratio adjusts for risk, and can help you determine the investment choice that will deliver the highest returns
while considering risk.

However, I still cannot understand why an optimal asset allocation involves the fact that ALL assets have MCTR and hence equal Sharpe ratios? Why is not an optimal asset allocation involving assets with highest Sharpe ratios? (but not necessarily equal?)

Thanks!!

Asset allocation - taxable portfolio

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A taxable portfolio should be less frequently rebalanced. Due to: 

1. Frequent rebalancing leads to realizing gains, hence you pay more in taxes (higher taxable income)

2. A tighter corridor involve higher transaction costs, therefore it is better to have a wider range/corridor. Also, due to the lower volatility after-tax, you need larger movements to change the volatility/risk level. 

Why would you want to increase the risk level in this case? Because higher risk leads to better returns, OK, but is there any kind of aspect I´m missing here? 

Many thanks, guys.

A question from CFA Program graduate from Toronto

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Hello colleagues,

I passed the CFA L3 exam several years ago and then unexpectedly got a lucrative job in consulting (not related to the investment industry). Now, I am in the process of changing careers and would like to refresh the CFA Program material.

Could someone please share with me Schweser Study Materials L1 - L3 for recent years, preferably, as PDF files?  If the Schweser books for L3 are 2-3 years old, it is perfectly OK with me. Ready to pay for them.

P.S. Just in case. If somebody has an open position for a CFA Program graduate, drop me a line. I am from Belarus, my first language is Russian, speak English very well, and I have been living in Toronto for 22 years.

2020 Reading 20 Example 4

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This is a massive beast of an example; what is the essence we need to extract from this? I doubt we’re expected to regurgitate the process of completing this example on the exam…or do we?

I believe example 4 in 2019 curriculum is different question. 


Should I purchase Schweser notes for 2020? (have 2019 notes)

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Hi boys and girls,

So obviously I failed in 2019 and I didn’t even have enough time to read through the notes once. Given that the notes are pretty expensive and I wonder whether it is worthwhile to buy the 2020 schweser? Am I gonna miss out a lot by using the 2019 notes? Thanks for the recommendations!

Options

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Why the gamma of a stock is 0?

Gamma = change in delta                 1/1=1?

                 change in underlying

why the payout amount is reduced by mortality credits?

Equity L3 2020 Active equity strategies

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Hello all,

Can someone explain the relevance of contemporaneous and forward relationship in equity factor rotation strategy.

Thanks

P

Private Wealth - tax

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After discussing her short- and long-term goals, Murray tells Virginia that he is concerned about her current tax situation. He asks her to confirm that for tax purposes, her cost base for the shares that she inherited from Richard was virtually zero. When she does, he reminds her that Canada has no inheritance tax but a capital gains tax in which one-half of the capital gain is taxable at the individual’s marginal tax rate on the disposal of the property.

Q. The nature of the tax affecting Virginia that concerns Murray is most likely described as a tax on:

  1. wealth.

  2. income.

  3. value added

Correct answer is income.

My question is: why? Could someone pls tell? It is clearly not wealth, nor value added, however, I would have classified it as “capital gains”?

Thank you!

Private Wealth - goals-based vs Monte Carlo

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Murray describes the differences between deterministic forecasting and Monte Carlo simulation in investment planning and the traditional and goal-based approach in constructing portfolios. After hearing about these methods, Virginia states that she thinks that the goal-based investing approach is best suited for her needs because

  • it allows her to specify a level of risk tolerance for each goal,

  • growth toward each goal on a straight-line basis is much easier to understand, and

  • it provides the ability to predict the probability of success of each goal

Q. With respect to Virginia’s preference for the goal-based investing approach, her comment that is most appropriate is the one dealing with:

  1.  

    risk tolerance.

  2.  

    growth toward a goal.

  3.  

    probability of success of a goal

Correct answer is A. However, under C: C is incorrect. Probability of success is not a feature of goal-based investing; it is an outcome of the Monte Carlo method for determining capital sufficiency.

Could someone pls tell me how come this is the case? Goals-based investing is optimized for a minimum probability of sucess, so it does have this probability of success as a feature… Many thanks!

Private Wealth - double taxation

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The oil firm that Jacobs controls is headquartered in the island country of Mahjong, located near Sahjong. Because of the foreign location of the oil firm, Simson believes there might be opportunities to reduce taxes.

Simson knows that Sahjong uses the exemption method, whereby it does not impose taxes on income that stems from a foreign country. However, Sahjong will soon hold parliamentary elections, and the opposition party is said to favor the deduction method. Simson plans to investigate how this possible change might affect Jacobs’ tax liability. She compares the tax rates in the two countries in Exhibit 3.

EXHIBIT 3

COMPARATIVE INCOME TAX RATES: Sahjong 10%, Mahjong 15,5%

Q. If the opposition party wins the election in Sahjong and its tax proposals are passed into law, the tax rate that Jacobs will face on income stemming from Mahjong will be closest to:

  1. 0.0%.
  2. 15.5%.
  3. 24.0%

Under deduction method, I would say 15.5% go to Mahjong… could someone pls tell me if you agree? Thanks!


Subjective questions word limit

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Does anyone know what is the number of words available / required for subjective questions

Use of CFAI's Qbank

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Hello - good morning - 

What are the thoughts of using CFAI’s Q-bank? Use it as part of the review at the end? or using it as part of regular post reading in tandem with the end of chapter “Practice Problems”?

regards - Jean

Wiley and Finquiz Materials

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 Has anyone here used these materials for level 3? I really need some advice 

Private Wealth - Exam Question

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Wald has a realized capital gain of CLC 50,000 in another taxable account. Her advisor reviews that account and notices that Stock Y has an unrealized loss of CLC 45,000 and a cost basis of CLC 220,000. The advisor explains two alternate plans to Wald:

Plan A: Sell Stock Y in Year 1 to realize the loss and replace it with Stock Z, which the advisor believes will have the same expected return as Stock Y. In Year 2, sell Stock Z at an expected market value of CLC 250,000.

Plan B: Hold Stock Y until Year 2 and then sell it at an expected market value of CLC 250,000. B.

Demonstrate that the amount of Wald’s total two-year tax liability is the same for both plans. Show your calculations.

Could someone please explain the rationing that should be applied in such a case, with the replacement of stocks with same returns? I have seen the solution, but do not really get it… 

Thank you, I would appreciate it very much, I got very frustrated because of this :(

To Take or Not to Mock Exams – Is That Even a Question . . .

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The following is a sponsored post from LevelUp Bootcamps:

And Mock Exams Are Key

CFA® Level III candidates frequently ask about whether or not they should take mock exams. This is a good learning tool that allows candidates to review prior exams, take prior tests, and gauge how they might do on that year’s upcoming exam. In particular, candidates learn how CFA® Institute constructs vignettes, how they formulate questions, and exactly what they expect for answers for particular command words. Typically Mock Exams are not release until late spring, therefore, you should consider purchasing - and taking - Mock Exams. You will want to make a decision about which Mock Exams you plan to purchase and use. Your path to choosing a CFA® Mock Exam provider is more critical than ever.

With the past 25 years of teaching and incorporating the actual prior CFA® exams as learning tools, LevelUp has promoted the concept that practice with past exams was critical to passing the exam.  Here we share our objectives in creating Mock Exams.

LevelUp Bootcamp Mock Exam Objectives:

1.     Match the look and feel of the real exam. From the list of questions at the beginning of the exam, to the formatting of each vignette (including the total number of minutes, number of parts, exhibits, questions, and minutes per question, even bolding each command word), to the design of the answer templates, we try to duplicate the published versions of the most recent CFA® Institute Level III morning exams.

2.     Write questions that closely approximate the format, tenor, tone and difficulty of potential real exam questions. LevelUp uses CFA® Institute’s command words in a manner consistent with CFA® Institute’s use, and writes questions in a straightforward and unambiguous manner. The goal is to make them difficult – as difficult as real exam questions – but difficult for the right reasons, not because they’re convoluted, ambiguous, or ridiculously long. As with the real exam, the questions are not generic; i.e., if you haven’t read the vignette, you will not know how to answer the question. Mock exams should not simply regurgitate the curriculum.

3.     Write questions that have only one correct answer. This is a lot more difficult than it sounds. Candidates can think of remarkable ways to answer questions, so the writer has to anticipate all of those and write the question tightly enough that only one answer will prove to be correct. Drawing upon experience in grading Level III practice exams, we have honed the art of writing solid questions that can be answered correctly in only one way.

4.     Write guideline answers that are clear and comprehensive. Not only do we want candidates to know what the correct answer is to each question on our exams, we want them to know why each answer is correct. We view practice exams as learning tools as well as assessment tools, and candidates learn best when they understand not only what’s right and what’s wrong, but why.

Perhaps more important than what we can tell you about our exams is what candidates have written about them on AnalystForum and Reddit/CFA®:

“S2000 mock exam is a must.” AnalystForum, October, 2019

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